Thursday, September 16, 2004

Once again, a post about the Pastoral Epistles. I'm sure you're used to it by now.

I posted an introduction awhile back. That intro was more for myself — it isn't anything I'd ever think about formally publishing — but I thought I'd share it anyway. It was more about thinking on paper to give myself something to be accountable to. As I've thought about it and talked with other folks, I think I've arrived at a basic methodology to use to guide my study (writing) through the Pastoral Epistles.

There are four potential angles to make comments from; the order here is significant:

  • Immediate Context: Does the current author (e.g. Paul) use a similar word, phrase, or concept. This is multi-leveled; I'd guess I'd want to look to immediate context first (current book), then look to see if other Pastorals use it, then look outside yet again to other Paulines.
  • Larger Context: What about other NT writers? Do they use the term or phrase? Does it jive with PE usage?
  • Whole Bible: What about LXX/OT? And how does that compare with the others?
  • Contemporary Writers: What about other writers, like the Apostolic Fathers, Josephus, and Philo?

I don't want to do something like this everywhere with every word or phrase; or always work through every point at every spot where I choose to embark on an extended discussion. But where the term/phrase/concept is "important", "exegetically significant", or "infrequently used" (or any combo, as deemed by me) then the above could be used to guide the discussion on the term/phrase/concept.

My primary interest is in the last bit, Contemporary Writers. Thus I'll probably use examples from there more frequently than other authors would. But that's my prerogative; I'm the author. :)

In addition to working at the word/phrase/pericope level, sometimes there are other concepts to work with, like:

  • Chronology/Biography: An example is 1Ti 1.3. Where would Paul have been leaving from as he proceeded to Macedonia?
  • Cultural References: Are cultural references are appropriate? (e.g. emperor worship?) This will not be used frequently.

Later on, I may get into other things, but this is a long ways off, if at all. I don't view it as essential, but I do view it as interesting. I have a lot of work to do to get to this point.

  • Textual Variants: During a second or third pass, I'd like to provide some information on interesting variants; typically stuff in Metzger's Textual Commentary or perhaps Westcott & Hort's Intro volume. Some of this will be done in the first pass; but it won't be comprehensive or systematic in any way.
  • Early Versions: This is a bit of a pipe dream, but at some point I think it would be fun to look at the early versions (Syriac, Coptic, and perhaps others if suitable helper resources can be located) and see how significant the variants are.

So, whaddya think? Have I bitten off too much? Will I ever be able to pull it off?

Post Author: Rico
Friday, September 17, 2004 12:01:04 AM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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Every now and then — I know it's hard to believe — but even folks at Logos have streaks of unproductivity; myself included.

My colleague Eli Evans and I had an ... er ... unproductive discussion via chat this morning. He was feeling rather un-funky, and I felt it was my duty to re-funkify him. Mr. Evans has done the world the favor of recording this discussion for posterity and publishing it to his blog.

If you happen to use RealRhapsody,** Eli has provided the extra bonus of links to various (and I mean various) tunes used in the re-funkification process — and his own attempts to de-funkify me! He has also included a playlist that you can use in your own re-funkification efforts. Please use this list responsibly; the funk you save may be your own.

We're not like this all the time. Really.


** Eli and I both subscribe to Real Rhapsody, as do a few other folks here at Logos. If you have broadband the library is adequate and the price reasonable.

Post Author: Rico
Thursday, September 16, 2004 7:22:32 PM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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 Wednesday, September 15, 2004

In 1Ti 1.18-19, I've come across two figurative phrases used by Paul (assuming Pauline authorship) that are also found in the works of Philo.

I posted on one of these a few days ago, in 1Ti 1.18: “wage the good warfare” or “fight the good fight”. Here's the excerpt from Philo:

And he is thought worthy of grace, for having fought the good fight in behalf of virtue he never ceases from warring till he sees the pleasures overthrown and baulked of their object.(Philo, Alleg.Int. III. 14)

Tonight, I came across 1Ti 1.19: “... made shipwreck of their faith.” Here's an example of Philo using very similar nautical terminology in a figurative manner; though Philo carries the illustration much further than Paul:

At all events Jacob does not speak to Joseph more than the sacred scripture speaks to every one who is vigorous in his body, and who is seen to be immersed amid abundant treasures, and riches, and superfluities, and to be overcome by none of them, when he says, “For still thou livest,” uttering a most marvellous sentiment, and one which is quite beyond the daily life of us who, if we have fallen in with ever so slight a breeze which bears us towards the good fortune, immediately set all sail and became greatly elated, and being full of great and high spirits, hurry forward with all our speed to the indulgence of our passions, and never will check our unbridled and immoderately excited desires until we run ashore and are wrecked as to the whole vessel of our souls. (Philo, Mut.Nom. 215)

I don't think there's anything special here; common metaphors (warfare and nautical/maritime terminology) should be seen in different documents from the same general era. But I still think it's interesting to realize that Paul (again, assuming Pauline authorship) and Philo used similar language.

I also think it is interesting that Paul used a metaphor (shipwreck) that he'd personally experienced (cf. 2Co 11.25).

Are there any lists of common metaphors such as these (e.g., “fight the good fight”, “make shipwreck”) found in classical documents that you know about? If so, drop a comment below or send an email to textgeek@gmail.com to let me know about it.

Thanks!

Post Author: Rico
Thursday, September 16, 2004 5:22:03 AM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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 Tuesday, September 14, 2004

For the next few weeks I have a few folks meeting at my house on Tuesdays to go over some stuff in the Pastoral Epistles.

We went over 1Ti 1.3-5. The always-observant Eli Evans noted the following translational differences in 1Ti 1.3:

  • ESV: As I urged you when I was going to Macedonia ...
  • NASB: As I urged you upon my departure for Macedonia ...  (NASB95 is the same)

And here are some more, just to get a fuller picture of the ways this particular area is handled:

  • NET: As I urged you when I was leaving for Macedonia ...
  • NKJV: As I urged you when I went into Macedonia ...
  • My own: As I urged you while I was on my way to Macedonia ...
  • NA27: Καθὼς παρεκάλεσά σε προσμεῖναι ἐν Ἐφέσῳ πορευόμενος εἰς Μακεδονίαν, 

The italic text represents (more or less) the words in question. While, upon reflection, they all say pretty much the same thing — “going to Macedonia” is rather similar to “departure for” Macedonia — does the participle + preposition in this instance really have that sort of range? NA27 lists no variants for this verse, nothing in the variae lectiones minores, and nothing in the editionum differentiae. Westcott-Hort matches NA27, as does Byzantine (Robinson/Pierpont; I don't have Hodges/Farstad handy).

Admittedly, the Greek is tough to render into English, especially if you try to preserve some sort of word order. My own effort simply tried to very generally state that Paul was headed toward Macedonia; not that he was going to Macedonia, or leaving for Macedonia, or whatnot. I didn't think too much of it until I looked back at the already existing variation in the English.

Again, I don't know that it is that big of a deal; but the point is interesting. There are a number of ways to say pretty much the same thing. Is that range warranted, or is one approach better than another for some reason?

Just curious.

Post Author: Rico
Wednesday, September 15, 2004 5:42:30 AM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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I had a posting on this earlier. More info online from the good folks at Bible.org.

I received my copy yesterday. And it is quite nice. I hadn't paid much attention to dimensions of the print on the web site and anticipated it would be the same size of the NA27/RSV diglot; which is the same size as the UBS4 (only thicker). The NA27/NET is larger. It is using, essentially, a large-print page for the NA27 and then regular size type for the NET and its critical notes.

Overall, it looks very nice and looks like it'll be a helpful book. I may soon be retiring my trusty UBS3 to the sidelines and begin taking the diglot to church and studies.

If you're looking for something to help you get back into the Greek (that is, you've taken some Greek in the past but haven't kept up) this could be a good way to be diligent about getting into the Greek, especially if you're in a context away from a computer. Like church on Sunday mornings, at least for most people.

Update: If you've just hopped in from the Bible Software Review (thanks, Rubén!), here's some info on ricoblog.

Post Author: Rico
Tuesday, September 14, 2004 2:51:24 PM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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 Monday, September 13, 2004

Sorry, Eli, couldn't resist.

Caught an article on BBC Online: First Welsh Bible Goes Online. Now, I'm unsure how to parse the headline — is it just that this is the first Welsh Bible to ever be online, or that this is the first Welsh Bible ever published that's been photographed then put online? Or maybe both?

These are high-quality digital photographs of the 1588 Welsh Bible. Very cool indeed. Here's a short blurb:

The year 1588 saw the publication of the first Welsh translation of the complete Bible, including the Apocrypha. It was the work of William Morgan, 1545-1604, a native of Penmachno, Conwy and a graduate of St. John's College, Cambridge. This folio volume was printed in black letter by the deputies of Christopher Barker, the Queen's Printer. It was intended for church rather than home use.

And here's the link to the Bible itself (the above link is to the BBC story, not the Bible).

Post Author: Rico
Tuesday, September 14, 2004 4:38:22 AM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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Of course it's good. I read a short post on the subject at Truck & Barter this morning. It reminded me of something I wrote on March 3, 2004 on the same subject. Particularly the sidebar below.


Here's an older article at VentureBlog that I snaked from the ChicagoBoyz. This one is about the evil demon o' the day known as outsourcing. If you've got questions about trade restrictions, NAFTA, and the like, this little VentureBlog article does a good job of explaining the basics of why trade is good — and hence why trade barriers/protectionism are bad.

Now, I may be getting a little out of my depth here, after all — I studied econ in college 10 years ago (blast ... I'm gettin' old!) and have been fairly much focused on Logos stuff (writing code, converting books) ever since. Hopefully I haven't made any gross errors. Follow my logic here:

First: US Firms have an interest in minimizing all costs while keeping or increasing productivity. This only makes sense — less cost with the same output (and prices) means more profit for the producer. If prices drop then the producer is still ok. If he needs to drop prices to compete, he's even better off — he's got the flexibility to chase market share instead of just worrying about paying next month's bills.

Second: US consumers (yes, consumers) are fairly savvy. Price is an important factor. Who doesn't want lower prices? I mean, why else does Wal-Mart even exist? Who wouldn't buy the cheaper of two otherwise equivalent goods? Who wouldn't be tempted by the cheaper of two goods, even if the more expensive was obviously better, if the price was significatly lower on the lower-quality good?

Third: US Workers are expensive on a worldwide scale. That's ok — we're also the most productive and most versatile, so it all works out. We're worth what we cost. However, as US Firms tighten the belt, they're able to do more with less. Dropping dead wood employees is done, and firms end up healthier and stronger — and more productive and more profitable.

Fourth: With the improvements in global communication and travel of the past 50 years, some firms are able to seek lower cost labor outside of the country. This is good — it allows firms to be more profitable and efficient, and it allows price competition to continue. Logically, if US consumers didn't mind high prices, US producers wouldn't have to take this step. Right?

Sidebar: One thing I simply can't comprehend about opposition to free trade, outsourcing, etc. from those of the liberal persuasion is the incontrovertible fact that the countries that host such businesses (India, China, Philippines, Sri Lanka, etc.) end up with people in solid jobs, with marketable skills, and decent pay for the country. I mean, isn't the raison d'etre for such folks simply “helping people” and ensuring “justice” for those who unfortunately don't have it as good as us? Anyway, as these foriegn-based folks have (and spend) money in their own country, it stimulates growth! It's like one big fat infusion of capital into these economies, some of which may not be doing so well. Why bother with the IMF, with international loans, with the crapola of the UN, etc. when we can have a positive effect on a country in this way? How much more humanitarian can we get? This is, effectively, Ronald Reagan's “A rising tide lifts all boats” applied on a global scale. Wow. First he gets rid of communism, then he sets the policies for economic improvement on a worldwide scale. US consumers get cheap goods to boot. Dang, Ronnie was a stud.

Fifth: Now follow me here ... this is where it gets wacky. If US Firms are forced via protectionist measures (Smoot-Hawley, anybody? Do we not remember what sparked the Great Depression?) to quit outsourcing and are forced to only use domestic labor ... well, let's just say the unemployment rate ain't gonna go down. Remember point 3 above? We're expensive. More jobs will be shed, and the costs to produce will go up.

Sixth: The increase in cost due to removal of economic advantage from offshore labor could very easily spark inflation. Think about it: Fewer jobs and higher production costs. Higher production costs lead to more expensive goods — Wal-Mart's little pac-man-wannabe smiley face does less bouncin' 'round the store. Folks with less money (fewer jobs, more expensive goods) buy less. Discretionary spending goes down. Credit card interest rates go up and this effectively takes more money out of most Americans who carry an inordinate amount of credit-card debt ... let's not even talk about the interest rates on the national debt. Heck, it could be the spark to 70's era stagflation (when both unemployment and inflation are on a drastic rise), though that's a bit alarmist.

Now, there's a whole lot of “what if” in the above conjecture. But basically, if US firms are forced to increase their costs, along with a narrowing of the market by pursuing protectionist measures, it ain't gonna be good. (Remember, even if the “protectionist” measures are tariffs on imports or other import restrictions, that's bad because the affected countries retaliate by slapping tariffs and whatnot on our goods.)

So, all of essentially ends up increasing costs and decreasing the market for US producers of goods and services. And — even though I last studied this stuff 10 years or so ago — even I know that is not the way to stimulate the economy.


Again, my main point here (in reference to the T&B post) is the sidebar. Why is foreign aid (writing a blank check, essentially, to a government) good, but investement that directly affects the actual participants in a foreign economy bad?

The answer is: it isn't bad, it is good, and it is a very effective way to provide assistance to needy economies with cheap labor pools that provide decent quality work.

Post Author: Rico
Monday, September 13, 2004 3:04:36 PM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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 Sunday, September 12, 2004

The phrase “fight the good fight” or something akin to it occurs three times in the Pastoral Epistles:

In addition, the phrase (or something like it) also occurs in:

  • 4Macc 9.24 (not figurative)
  • 1Cl 37.1
  • Philo, Alleg.Interp. III.14

In addition, there are military metaphors in 2Ti 2.4. Paul uses military terms figuratively elsewhere (e.g. 1Co 9.7; 2Co 10.3-4). And, of course, Eph 6.

The Apostolic Fathers also have figurative usage of military terms: Poly 5.3; IgnPoly 6.2. The last reference is interesting when compared to Eph 6.

I'm unfamiliar with other literature. LSJ is little help; it is jam-packed with references to use of such words as στρατεύω because, well, Greeks wrote a whole lot about war. Anybody have any other references to point out with figurative use of military terminology? Or any insight on why it seems to be used so frequently?

My only thought is that such language is used frequently because folks would be familiar with it, but that's a deduction and not an authoritative opinion. I'm just curious as to how common such figurative usage is, and if there are established opinions on the reasons for such usage.

If you have any ideas, I'm all ears. Thanks!

Post Author: Rico
Monday, September 13, 2004 6:25:02 AM (Pacific Daylight Time, UTC-07:00) 

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