Tuesday, September 14, 2004

For the next few weeks I have a few folks meeting at my house on Tuesdays to go over some stuff in the Pastoral Epistles.

We went over 1Ti 1.3-5. The always-observant Eli Evans noted the following translational differences in 1Ti 1.3:

  • ESV: As I urged you when I was going to Macedonia ...
  • NASB: As I urged you upon my departure for Macedonia ...  (NASB95 is the same)

And here are some more, just to get a fuller picture of the ways this particular area is handled:

  • NET: As I urged you when I was leaving for Macedonia ...
  • NKJV: As I urged you when I went into Macedonia ...
  • My own: As I urged you while I was on my way to Macedonia ...
  • NA27: Καθὼς παρεκάλεσά σε προσμεῖναι ἐν Ἐφέσῳ πορευόμενος εἰς Μακεδονίαν, 

The italic text represents (more or less) the words in question. While, upon reflection, they all say pretty much the same thing — “going to Macedonia” is rather similar to “departure for” Macedonia — does the participle + preposition in this instance really have that sort of range? NA27 lists no variants for this verse, nothing in the variae lectiones minores, and nothing in the editionum differentiae. Westcott-Hort matches NA27, as does Byzantine (Robinson/Pierpont; I don't have Hodges/Farstad handy).

Admittedly, the Greek is tough to render into English, especially if you try to preserve some sort of word order. My own effort simply tried to very generally state that Paul was headed toward Macedonia; not that he was going to Macedonia, or leaving for Macedonia, or whatnot. I didn't think too much of it until I looked back at the already existing variation in the English.

Again, I don't know that it is that big of a deal; but the point is interesting. There are a number of ways to say pretty much the same thing. Is that range warranted, or is one approach better than another for some reason?

Just curious.

Post Author: Rico
Tuesday, September 14, 2004 9:42:30 PM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [0]

I had a posting on this earlier. More info online from the good folks at Bible.org.

I received my copy yesterday. And it is quite nice. I hadn't paid much attention to dimensions of the print on the web site and anticipated it would be the same size of the NA27/RSV diglot; which is the same size as the UBS4 (only thicker). The NA27/NET is larger. It is using, essentially, a large-print page for the NA27 and then regular size type for the NET and its critical notes.

Overall, it looks very nice and looks like it'll be a helpful book. I may soon be retiring my trusty UBS3 to the sidelines and begin taking the diglot to church and studies.

If you're looking for something to help you get back into the Greek (that is, you've taken some Greek in the past but haven't kept up) this could be a good way to be diligent about getting into the Greek, especially if you're in a context away from a computer. Like church on Sunday mornings, at least for most people.

Update: If you've just hopped in from the Bible Software Review (thanks, Rubén!), here's some info on ricoblog.

Post Author: Rico
Tuesday, September 14, 2004 6:51:24 AM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [2]
 Monday, September 13, 2004

Sorry, Eli, couldn't resist.

Caught an article on BBC Online: First Welsh Bible Goes Online. Now, I'm unsure how to parse the headline — is it just that this is the first Welsh Bible to ever be online, or that this is the first Welsh Bible ever published that's been photographed then put online? Or maybe both?

These are high-quality digital photographs of the 1588 Welsh Bible. Very cool indeed. Here's a short blurb:

The year 1588 saw the publication of the first Welsh translation of the complete Bible, including the Apocrypha. It was the work of William Morgan, 1545-1604, a native of Penmachno, Conwy and a graduate of St. John's College, Cambridge. This folio volume was printed in black letter by the deputies of Christopher Barker, the Queen's Printer. It was intended for church rather than home use.

And here's the link to the Bible itself (the above link is to the BBC story, not the Bible).

Post Author: Rico
Monday, September 13, 2004 8:38:22 PM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [1]

Of course it's good. I read a short post on the subject at Truck & Barter this morning. It reminded me of something I wrote on March 3, 2004 on the same subject. Particularly the sidebar below.


Here's an older article at VentureBlog that I snaked from the ChicagoBoyz. This one is about the evil demon o' the day known as outsourcing. If you've got questions about trade restrictions, NAFTA, and the like, this little VentureBlog article does a good job of explaining the basics of why trade is good — and hence why trade barriers/protectionism are bad.

Now, I may be getting a little out of my depth here, after all — I studied econ in college 10 years ago (blast ... I'm gettin' old!) and have been fairly much focused on Logos stuff (writing code, converting books) ever since. Hopefully I haven't made any gross errors. Follow my logic here:

First: US Firms have an interest in minimizing all costs while keeping or increasing productivity. This only makes sense — less cost with the same output (and prices) means more profit for the producer. If prices drop then the producer is still ok. If he needs to drop prices to compete, he's even better off — he's got the flexibility to chase market share instead of just worrying about paying next month's bills.

Second: US consumers (yes, consumers) are fairly savvy. Price is an important factor. Who doesn't want lower prices? I mean, why else does Wal-Mart even exist? Who wouldn't buy the cheaper of two otherwise equivalent goods? Who wouldn't be tempted by the cheaper of two goods, even if the more expensive was obviously better, if the price was significatly lower on the lower-quality good?

Third: US Workers are expensive on a worldwide scale. That's ok — we're also the most productive and most versatile, so it all works out. We're worth what we cost. However, as US Firms tighten the belt, they're able to do more with less. Dropping dead wood employees is done, and firms end up healthier and stronger — and more productive and more profitable.

Fourth: With the improvements in global communication and travel of the past 50 years, some firms are able to seek lower cost labor outside of the country. This is good — it allows firms to be more profitable and efficient, and it allows price competition to continue. Logically, if US consumers didn't mind high prices, US producers wouldn't have to take this step. Right?

Sidebar: One thing I simply can't comprehend about opposition to free trade, outsourcing, etc. from those of the liberal persuasion is the incontrovertible fact that the countries that host such businesses (India, China, Philippines, Sri Lanka, etc.) end up with people in solid jobs, with marketable skills, and decent pay for the country. I mean, isn't the raison d'etre for such folks simply “helping people” and ensuring “justice” for those who unfortunately don't have it as good as us? Anyway, as these foriegn-based folks have (and spend) money in their own country, it stimulates growth! It's like one big fat infusion of capital into these economies, some of which may not be doing so well. Why bother with the IMF, with international loans, with the crapola of the UN, etc. when we can have a positive effect on a country in this way? How much more humanitarian can we get? This is, effectively, Ronald Reagan's “A rising tide lifts all boats” applied on a global scale. Wow. First he gets rid of communism, then he sets the policies for economic improvement on a worldwide scale. US consumers get cheap goods to boot. Dang, Ronnie was a stud.

Fifth: Now follow me here ... this is where it gets wacky. If US Firms are forced via protectionist measures (Smoot-Hawley, anybody? Do we not remember what sparked the Great Depression?) to quit outsourcing and are forced to only use domestic labor ... well, let's just say the unemployment rate ain't gonna go down. Remember point 3 above? We're expensive. More jobs will be shed, and the costs to produce will go up.

Sixth: The increase in cost due to removal of economic advantage from offshore labor could very easily spark inflation. Think about it: Fewer jobs and higher production costs. Higher production costs lead to more expensive goods — Wal-Mart's little pac-man-wannabe smiley face does less bouncin' 'round the store. Folks with less money (fewer jobs, more expensive goods) buy less. Discretionary spending goes down. Credit card interest rates go up and this effectively takes more money out of most Americans who carry an inordinate amount of credit-card debt ... let's not even talk about the interest rates on the national debt. Heck, it could be the spark to 70's era stagflation (when both unemployment and inflation are on a drastic rise), though that's a bit alarmist.

Now, there's a whole lot of “what if” in the above conjecture. But basically, if US firms are forced to increase their costs, along with a narrowing of the market by pursuing protectionist measures, it ain't gonna be good. (Remember, even if the “protectionist” measures are tariffs on imports or other import restrictions, that's bad because the affected countries retaliate by slapping tariffs and whatnot on our goods.)

So, all of essentially ends up increasing costs and decreasing the market for US producers of goods and services. And — even though I last studied this stuff 10 years or so ago — even I know that is not the way to stimulate the economy.


Again, my main point here (in reference to the T&B post) is the sidebar. Why is foreign aid (writing a blank check, essentially, to a government) good, but investement that directly affects the actual participants in a foreign economy bad?

The answer is: it isn't bad, it is good, and it is a very effective way to provide assistance to needy economies with cheap labor pools that provide decent quality work.

Post Author: Rico
Monday, September 13, 2004 7:04:36 AM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [1]
 Sunday, September 12, 2004

The phrase “fight the good fight” or something akin to it occurs three times in the Pastoral Epistles:

  • 1Ti 1.18
  • 1Ti 6.12
  • 2Ti 4.7

In addition, the phrase (or something like it) also occurs in:

  • 4Macc 9.24 (not figurative)
  • 1Cl 37.1
  • Philo, Alleg.Interp. III.14

In addition, there are military metaphors in 2Ti 2.4. Paul uses military terms figuratively elsewhere (e.g. 1Co 9.7; 2Co 10.3-4). And, of course, Eph 6.

The Apostolic Fathers also have figurative usage of military terms: Poly 5.3; IgnPoly 6.2. The last reference is interesting when compared to Eph 6.

I'm unfamiliar with other literature. LSJ is little help; it is jam-packed with references to use of such words as στρατεύω because, well, Greeks wrote a whole lot about war. Anybody have any other references to point out with figurative use of military terminology? Or any insight on why it seems to be used so frequently?

My only thought is that such language is used frequently because folks would be familiar with it, but that's a deduction and not an authoritative opinion. I'm just curious as to how common such figurative usage is, and if there are established opinions on the reasons for such usage.

If you have any ideas, I'm all ears. Thanks!

Post Author: Rico
Sunday, September 12, 2004 10:25:02 PM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [1]
 Saturday, September 11, 2004

 ... though I'm still not going to go there unless it's just the only place likely to have something I need/want.

But stories like this just make me want to like them. I mean ... they've been able to keep the influence of unions at bay? That's awesome. More power to 'em.

So, while I won't be heading down to the land of Wal-Mart anytime soon, I won't boycott 'em. I mean ... it's not like they're a truly incompetent organization like Radio Shack or anything. Now there's a company whose doors I won't darken unless I need to buy a fuse. Seriously. Ask around whatever group of friends you have, and see if anyone has a horrible customer service experience related to Radio Shack. I bet you'll easily find at least one person with a story.

Post Author: Rico
Saturday, September 11, 2004 9:37:34 PM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [0]

Rubén Gómez' post on NT Papyri reminded me of something I wrote almost a year ago on my internal-to-the-office blog (which preceded this public blog). So, without further adieu ...


Just got back from a Bible study. We're studying James. Tonight was on James 2.14-26, the passage dealing with faith and works.

One of the participants in the study is Dr. Cal Hansen who used to be the president of Trinity Western. He also taught Greek exegesis for a number of years. It's kind of cool that he's in the study. Anyway, he assigned me homework. He wants me to look into James 2.21. This says (ESV):

Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up his son Isaac on the altar?

He asked the question, "what if that wasn't a question mark at the end of this verse? After all, the original Greek text(s) didn't have punctuation, that has only been inserted later."

Now, I say all of this under the guise of "the internet is cool" because I happen to know that many of the papyri are on the internet as images. So, I opened my trusty The Text of the Earliest New Testament Greek Manuscripts (second edition, 2001) and learn more about P20 (P.Oxy 1171), which is the earliest witness (3rd century! That's in the 200's, folks!) for this portion of scripture. Then I went to the Oxyrhynchus site at Cambridge, but the don't have all of the images online. Drats.

So, Google to the rescue. I searched for 'Oxyrhynchus 1171' and ended up at Princeton, where the manuscript is housed (duh). From there, I could follow the link to NT Epistle of James (first one). Note they've got an error -- the manuscript fragment actually contains portions from James 2.19, not James 2.26 as the link states. So, anyway, I clicked on the link to get more info. Small pictures of recto & verso plus some bibliographic information. Cool. But they've got high-quality pics of each side of the manuscript! So ... I looked at the recto. As Tiny Elvis would say, "man .... that sucker's huuuuge!". If you look on the sixth line from the top, you'll see ]USIASTHRIONBLE[. James 2.21 ends after USIASTHRION (the full Greek word is QUSIASTHRION).

Thus, I've confirmed that (at least as of the 3rd century) there was no punctuation in the Greek text. All from the comfort of my kitchen table.

QED: The internet is cool. I mean, I knew that punctuation marks wouldn't be in the papyri, and that they were added by later editors of later MSS ... but, in a single night, to get to the actual papyrus? And the quality of the images? That is cool!

Part II of the assignment involves sifting through journal articles in Logos using Galaxie's Theological Journal Library. I found an article from January 2002 in BibSac that argues that while the same word is used in both instances (James 2 & Romans 4), each author was using a semantically different meaning of the verb. Paul was speaking of a formal act of justification, that of God declaring one righteous (as he did in the Abrahamic covenant in Ge 15). James was instead speaking of justification in the sense of "proving", that is, one proves he has faith through works — which is more along the lines of Ge 22, which is what James was citing.

This is a tough text, and while one may interpret the two passages differently, the difficulty of the same word meaning different things — and statements that indicate seemingly opposite ideas — makes it challenging. It seems the theory of semantic domains is one way to deal with difficulties of this particular sort, and the method is particularly attractive in this instance as we're dealing with two different authors.


No, I didn't arrive at any further conclusions than the one mentioned above. And I still think the internet is cool; the availability of papyri, if you do some diligent searching, is way cool. Check out the Duke Databank of Documentary Papyri and, of course, Oxyrhynchus Online (watch out — the interface is horrid).

And ... curiously ... I've been reading the same book that Mr. Gómez mentions, McKnight & Osborne's The Face of New Testament Studies. If you're into that sort of stuff, I'd recommend it. I'd also recommend Eldon Jay Epp's article in the Spring 2004 JBL, “The Oxyrhynchus New Testament Papryi: 'Not Without Honor Except in Their Hometown'?” (watch out, link is to a PDF file).

Post Author: Rico
Saturday, September 11, 2004 12:26:31 PM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [0]
 Friday, September 10, 2004

I'll probably be playing around with different colors this weekend on ricoblog, so if something looks particularly hideous ... don't be alarmed. I like the default dasBlog layout, but want to differentiate a little from JIMMYBLOG.

Oh, yeah — You may have noticed my list of furled links on the side of the page. Furl is a service (freebie) that is like bookmarks on steriods. It's pretty cool; I've been meaning to get the list on this page for a few days and finally got 'round to it.

Update: I think I like the new colors. I still need to figure out the calendar (don't like the grey background) but there are five different shades of gray there to replace. I need to figure out the right combo.

Post Author: Rico
Friday, September 10, 2004 7:49:24 PM (Pacific Standard Time, UTC-08:00) 

#     |  Disclaimer  |  Comments [2]